Medical Officer (BS-17) Past Papers — FPSC & PPSC Solved MCQs — Part 1
Solved past paper MCQs for Medical Officer (MO) and Women Medical Officer (WMO) recruitment tests conducted by FPSC, PPSC, and KPPSC Health Departments.
Questions
15
Difficulty Level
Exam-Level
Target Exams
FPSC Medical Officer, PPSC Medical Officer, KPPSC Health Dept...
Estimated Time
18 mins
Exam-Level FPSC Medical Officer PPSC Medical Officer KPPSC Health Dept WMO
Verified for Commission Syllabus • Oct 18, 2026
15
Verified Practice Questions
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Question 1 of 15
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2023
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2023
What is the initial drug of choice for the immediate management of acute eclamptic seizures in a pregnant patient?
Correct Answer: Option B — Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4) IV/IM regimen
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Magnesium sulfate is the definitive first-line anticonvulsant for prevention and treatment of seizures in severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia (Pritchard or Zuspan protocol: 4 g IV loading dose followed by maintenance infusion or IM injections).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Emergency Management of Eclampsia
Question 2 of 15
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2023
★ PPSC MO 2021
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2023
★ PPSC MO 2021
In the initial emergency department management of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), which antiplatelet loading dose is given immediately?
Immediate dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) for acute STEMI consists of chewable non-enteric coated Aspirin (162-325 mg, typically 300 mg) combined with a P2Y12 inhibitor such as Clopidogrel (300 to 600 mg loading dose) unless contraindicated.
A 28-year-old patient presents with fever, neck stiffness, and headache. Lumbar puncture reveals cloudy CSF, elevated opening pressure, neutrophilic pleocytosis, marked protein elevation (>100 mg/dL), and markedly low CSF glucose (<40% of serum glucose). What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Option B — Acute Bacterial Meningitis
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Acute bacterial meningitis produces turbid CSF with predominantly polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), high protein, and low glucose (hypoglycorrhachia) consumed by multiplying bacteria. Viral meningitis shows lymphocytic predominance with normal glucose.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:CSF Findings in Meningitis Differential Diagnosis
Question 4 of 15
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ PPSC WMO 2023
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ PPSC WMO 2023
In acute appendicitis, maximal tenderness located at one-third the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus is known as:
Correct Answer: Option B — McBurney's point tenderness
Detailed Academic Explanation:
McBurney's point lies one-third of the distance along the oblique line from the right anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the umbilicus, representing the base of the inflamed vermiform appendix.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Clinical Signs in Acute Appendicitis
Question 5 of 15
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2023
★ PPSC MO 2022
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2023
★ PPSC MO 2022
What is the fluid of choice and primary resuscitation strategy in the initial management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Correct Answer: Option B — 0.9% Normal Saline (isotonic NaCl) 1000-1500 mL in the first hour
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The initial priority in DKA is intravascular volume expansion with isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) at 10-20 mL/kg/hr (approx 1-1.5 L in the first hour). Insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hr) is initiated after confirming adequate fluid hydration and serum potassium > 3.3 mEq/L.
Which diagnostic sign is positive in acute cholecystitis when inspiration is arrested due to sharp pain upon deep palpation of the right upper quadrant?
Correct Answer: Option C — Murphy's sign
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Murphy's sign is an abrupt arrest in inspiratory effort when the examiner deeply palpates the right subcostal margin during deep inspiration, as the inflamed gallbladder contacts the examining fingers.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Murphy's Sign in Acute Cholecystitis
Question 7 of 15
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2023
★ FPSC Health 2022
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2023
★ FPSC Health 2022
What is the standard intensive phase pharmacological regimen for new pulmonary tuberculosis under the National TB Control Program of Pakistan?
Correct Answer: Option B — 2 months of 4-drug HRZE (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol) followed by 4 months of HR
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Under WHO and Pakistan National TB Control guidelines, standard Category 1 treatment for newly diagnosed pulmonary TB comprises an initial 2-month intensive phase with 4 drugs (HRZE) followed by a 4-month continuation phase with 2 drugs (HR). Total duration is 6 months (2HRZE / 4HR).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:National TB DOTS Regimen
Question 8 of 15
★ KPPSC MO 2023
★ PPSC MO 2021
★ KPPSC MO 2023
★ PPSC MO 2021
In pediatric dehydration according to WHO IMNCI guidelines, which clinical sign indicates 'Severe Dehydration'?
Correct Answer: Option B — Lethargic or unconscious child with skin pinch going back very slowly (> 2 seconds) and sunken eyes
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Under WHO IMNCI criteria, Severe Dehydration is diagnosed if two or more of the following signs are present: 1. Lethargy or unconsciousness, 2. Sunken eyes, 3. Inability to drink or drinking poorly, 4. Skin pinch going back very slowly (more than 2 seconds).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:WHO Dehydration Assessment in Children
Question 9 of 15
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2023
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2023
Which laboratory parameter is the most sensitive and specific biomarker for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction within 3 to 6 hours of chest pain onset?
Correct Answer: Option C — Cardiac Troponin I or T (cTnI / cTnT)
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Cardiac troponins (cTnI and cTnT) are highly specific and sensitive structural proteins released into the bloodstream following cardiomyocyte necrosis, rising within 3-4 hours and remaining elevated for 7-14 days.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Cardiac Biomarkers in Myocardial Infarction
Question 10 of 15
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2022
★ PPSC MO 2023
★ KPPSC Health Dept 2022
★ PPSC MO 2023
What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for an adult patient presenting with acute anaphylactic shock?
Correct Answer: Option B — Intramuscular Epinephrine (Adrenaline) 1:1,000 (0.5 mg) in the mid-anterolateral thigh
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 1:1,000 (0.5 mg in adults) injected into the anterolateral mid-thigh is the immediate, life-saving drug of choice for anaphylaxis. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are secondary adjuncts and do not reverse airway obstruction or cardiovascular collapse promptly.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:First-line Treatment for Anaphylaxis
Question 11 of 15
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ PPSC WMO 2021
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ PPSC WMO 2021
Which antibiotic class is strictly contraindicated in pregnant women and growing children due to teeth discoloration and bone growth impairment?
Correct Answer: Option B — Tetracyclines (e.g. Doxycycline)
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Tetracyclines chelate calcium and deposit in developing bones and deciduous/permanent teeth, causing permanent brownish-yellow enamel discoloration and hypoplasia; they are classified as pregnancy category D.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Teratogenic & Contraindicated Drugs in Pregnancy
Question 12 of 15
★ PPSC Women Medical Officer 2023
★ KPPSC MO 2024
★ PPSC Women Medical Officer 2023
★ KPPSC MO 2024
In obstetrics, placenta previa is characteristically defined by which clinical presentation?
Correct Answer: Option B — Painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester without uterine tenderness
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Placenta previa classically presents as painless, recurrent, bright red vaginal bleeding in late second or third trimester without uterine tetany. Abruptio placentae presents with painful, dark vaginal bleeding and a tense, tender, wooden uterus.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Placenta Previa vs Abruptio Placentae
Question 13 of 15
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2021
★ PPSC MO 2023
★ FPSC Medical Officer 2021
★ PPSC MO 2023
In the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis, serum lipase is preferred over serum amylase because:
Correct Answer: Option B — Lipase remains elevated longer (7-14 days) and has greater sensitivity and specificity
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Serum lipase has higher sensitivity (85-100%) and specificity for pancreatic injury. Amylase normalizes within 48-72 hours, whereas lipase stays elevated for 8 to 14 days, providing wider diagnostic utility.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Serum Enzymes in Acute Pancreatitis
Question 14 of 15
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ KPPSC Health 2023
★ PPSC Medical Officer 2022
★ KPPSC Health 2023
According to the Pakistan Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), at what ages is the Pentavalent vaccine (DTP-HepB-Hib) scheduled?
Correct Answer: Option B — At 6 weeks, 10 weeks, and 14 weeks
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The Pentavalent vaccine in Pakistan's national immunization schedule protects against Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis, Hepatitis B, and Haemophilus influenzae type b, administered in three doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks of age.
An unconscious patient presents to the emergency room with pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression (4 breaths/min), and needle track marks on the arms. What is the immediate antidote?
Correct Answer: Option A — Naloxone IV
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The clinical triad of pinpoint pupils (miosis), central nervous system depression, and profound respiratory depression indicates acute opioid overdose. Naloxone (a pure competitive opioid receptor antagonist) must be administered immediately IV/IM/subcutaneously.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Acute Opioid Toxidrome and Naloxone Administration
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Master the next curriculum module with 40 exam-standard MCQs.
In competitive commission exams (FPSC, PPSC, KPPSC, SPSC, CSS, PMS), questions are frequently phrased with distractor options designed to catch rote learners. Whenever you answer an MCQ, read the Detailed Academic Explanation and Conceptual Anchor to understand why the remaining options are incorrect.