Code Of Criminal Procedure — Part 1 MCQs with Explanations

Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India deals with the provision of maintenance to wives, children, and parents. It empowers a Magistrate to order a husband to pay monthly maintenance to his wife if she is unable to maintain herself. The crucial point is that Section 125 CrPC doesn't specify a fixed upper limit for maintenance . Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: Any Amount . The Magistrate has the discretion to determine the appropriate amount of maintenance based on several factors, including the husband's income, the wife's needs, the standard of living enjoyed during the marriage, and other relevant circumstances. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest arbitrary and outdated limits that are not reflected in the law. The amount awarded can be significantly higher than a few hundred rupees, depending on the specifics of the case.

Powers of Magistrate to Order Specimen Signatures or Handwriting Definition: The Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) introduced provisions allowing a Magistrate to direct any person, including the accused, to provide specimen signatures or handwriting for the purposes of investigation or trial. Correct Answer: Option B: Section 311A Explanation: Section 311A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, was inserted by the Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005. It empowers a Magistrate of First Class to order any person, including the accused, to give a specimen signature or handwriting for the purpose of investigation or proceedings. Key Provisions of Section 311A CrPC: 1. A Magistrate of First Class has the authority to direct a person to provide specimen signatures or handwriting. 2. The order must be made for the purpose of any investigation or trial under the CrPC. 3. This power does not include the collection of thumb impressions. 4. The provision ensures effective investigation by helping forensic analysis and comparison of disputed documents. Since Section 311A explicitly provides for this power, the correct answer is Option B: Section 311A .

Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, certain offences can be compounded, which means that the victim and the offender can mutually agree to settle the matter and withdraw the case. Compounding of offences generally requires the permission of the court, except for specific offences that can be compounded without the permission of the court. Voluntarily causing hurt under Section 323 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is one such offence that can be compounded without the permission of the court. Compounding of this offence does not require court approval, and the parties involved can reach an agreement to settle the matter privately. Causing miscarriage under section 312 and Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under section 325 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 are offences that generally require the permission of the court for compounding. Criminal breach of trust under section 406 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is not typically an offence that can be compounded without the permission of the court. Given the options provided, the correct answer is Option A: Voluntarily causing hurt under Section 323 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.

Correct Answer: Option C: Three years According to Section 29(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 , a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class (JMFC) may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years for a single offence. This provision is clear and has not been amended to increase the imprisonment limit beyond three years at the central level. While some states (e.g., Maharashtra) have amended the fine limit that a JMFC can impose, no state has increased the maximum term of imprisonment beyond three years. The newly enacted Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 , which replaces the CrPC, also retains this three-year maximum imprisonment limit for JMFCs. Option A (Five years) , Option B (Four years) , and Option D (Two years) are incorrect as they either exceed or fall short of the actual legal limit. Therefore, based on the central CrPC and current legal framework, the correct answer is Option C: Three years .

Before explaining the correct option, let's define the key term: Proclaimed Offender . A proclaimed offender is a person against whom a warrant of arrest has been issued but who cannot be found. Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) deals with the procedure for declaring a person a proclaimed offender. Section 82 CrPC empowers the court to issue a proclamation calling upon the accused to appear before it. If the accused fails to appear despite the proclamation, the court may declare him a proclaimed offender. Section 83 CrPC deals with the attachment of the property of a proclaimed offender. The court may order the attachment of the property of a person after he has been declared a proclaimed offender under Section 82. This is done to ensure that the accused's property is available to meet any fine or compensation that may be imposed if he is convicted. Now let's analyze the options: Option A: Incorrect. The court cannot order attachment of property before declaring the accused a proclaimed person. The attachment happens after the proclamation and declaration under Section 83. Option B: Correct. This option accurately reflects the procedure. Attachment of property is possible only after the publication of the proclamation under Section 82 and the subsequent declaration of the person as a proclaimed offender. Option C: Incorrect. The attachment of property is contingent upon the declaration of the person as a proclaimed offender under Section 82. The court cannot attach property arbitrarily without following due process. Option D: Incorrect because Option B is the correct statement of law.

Section 82 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the proclamation for the appearance of an accused person who is absconding. Definition of Proclamation: A proclamation, in this context, is a formal public announcement or notice. In the context of Section 82 CrPC, it's a formal announcement calling upon an absconding accused to appear before the court. Explanation: Section 82 of the CrPC empowers the court to issue a proclamation calling upon an accused person to appear before it. If the accused fails to appear within the stipulated time, the court can proceed against the accused's property. The section specifies that the period for appearance after the proclamation is issued should not be less than 30 days . Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 30 days . Why other options are incorrect: Options A, C, and D mention periods shorter or longer than the minimum prescribed by the CrPC. The law mandates a minimum of 30 days; anything less would be a violation of the prescribed procedure.

Trial: A trial is a formal examination of evidence before a judge, and sometimes a jury, in order to decide guilt or innocence in a criminal case. The question asks which orders can be passed *after* the trial is concluded. This implies that the court has heard all the evidence and arguments presented by both the prosecution and the defense. Option A: Only an order of acquittal An acquittal is a court verdict finding a defendant not guilty of a crime. While an acquittal *can* be a final outcome after a trial, it's not the only possible outcome. Option B: Only an order of conviction A conviction is a court verdict finding a defendant guilty of a crime. Similar to an acquittal, a conviction is a possible outcome, but not the exclusive one. Option C: Order of discharge An order of discharge can be issued in various situations, even after a trial. For example, if the prosecution fails to prove its case beyond a reasonable doubt, the accused can be discharged (equivalent to an acquittal). However, it’s not inherently tied to the *completion* of a trial in the way that acquittal or conviction are. It could be issued during the trial's proceedings as well. Therefore this option is not entirely correct. Option D: Either an order of acquittal or conviction This is the correct answer. After a full trial, the court must make a determination on the guilt or innocence of the accused. The only two possible conclusive orders directly related to the merits of the case are an order of acquittal (finding the accused not guilty) or an order of conviction (finding the accused guilty). Other orders might follow, like sentencing in a conviction, but the fundamental determination of guilt or innocence is captured in these two orders.

Juvenile Justice System: Before delving into the options, it's crucial to understand the juvenile justice system. This system is designed to handle cases involving minors (typically under 18) who have committed offenses differently than the adult criminal justice system. It prioritizes rehabilitation and reform over punishment. Legal Safeguards for Juveniles: The law provides specific safeguards for juveniles during investigations. These are intended to protect their rights and well-being, recognizing their vulnerability and developmental stage. Option A: At the Police Station Generally, bringing a juvenile to a police station for questioning is discouraged unless absolutely necessary. The police station environment can be intimidating and stressful for a young person, potentially affecting their ability to cooperate or exercise their rights effectively. This option is usually not the preferred method. Option B: At his residence Investigating a juvenile at their residence is often preferred. It's a less intimidating and more comfortable environment for the child. This can lead to a more cooperative atmosphere, allowing for a more effective investigation while upholding the child's rights. Option C: At any place This option is incorrect. The law doesn't allow for the investigation of a juvenile at any arbitrary place. The environment must consider the child's best interests and ensure they aren't subjected to undue pressure or coercion. Option D: All of the above Because option C is incorrect, this option is also incorrect. The investigation location should be chosen carefully, prioritizing the juvenile's welfare and rights. Correct Answer: B (At his residence) The most appropriate place to investigate a 14-year-old suspected of murder is at their residence. This approach is more likely to respect the juvenile's rights, minimize stress, and allow for a more productive and fair investigation. It aligns with the principles of the juvenile justice system emphasizing rehabilitation and the child's best interests.

Anticipatory Bail under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Anticipatory bail is a legal provision that allows a person to seek bail in anticipation of arrest. It is granted under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, to prevent undue harassment or unjustified detention. This type of bail is sought before a person is actually arrested, ensuring protection from immediate custody. Correct Answer: Option B – Non-bailable offences Anticipatory bail can only be invoked in cases of non-bailable offences . These are serious offences where bail is not a matter of right and is granted only at the discretion of the court. Since bailable offences already provide an accused with the right to bail under Section 436 of CrPC, anticipatory bail is not required for such cases. Explanation: >> Section 438 of the CrPC empowers the High Court or Sessions Court to grant anticipatory bail if a person believes they may be arrested for a non-bailable offence. >> Non-bailable offences are typically more serious in nature, such as offences involving grievous hurt, theft, rape, murder, or economic fraud. >> The court considers factors such as the nature of the accusation, the applicant’s history, and whether granting bail would affect the investigation before deciding on anticipatory bail. Since anticipatory bail is not applicable to bailable offences (as bail is automatically granted in such cases), Option B – Non-bailable offences is the correct answer.

Jurisdiction in Cases of Cheque Dishonor: In cases of cheque dishonor under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, jurisdiction is an important factor. The court where the case can be filed is usually determined by where the cheque was presented, dishonored, or where the notice of dishonor was issued. Correct Answer: Option B – National Panasonic v. Harman Electronics In the case of National Panasonic v. Harman Electronics , the Supreme Court of India ruled that merely because a legal notice regarding the dishonor of a cheque was sent from a particular location, it does not grant that place jurisdiction to entertain the complaint. Explanation: >> The case involved a cheque dishonor dispute where the complainant’s lawyer sent a legal notice from a different city and then claimed jurisdiction based on that location. >> The Supreme Court held that jurisdiction cannot be determined solely based on the place where the notice was dispatched by the lawyer. >> Instead, jurisdiction is determined by other factors, such as where the cheque was presented for payment, where it was dishonored, or where the payee maintains their account. >> This ruling was significant in preventing forum shopping, where complainants might try to file cases in a location of their convenience rather than the legally appropriate place. Thus, the correct answer is Option B – National Panasonic v. Harman Electronics .

Summons Case: A summons case is defined under Section 2(w) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. It refers to a case that is not a warrant case . Warrant cases involve offences that are punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment exceeding two years, whereas summons cases involve relatively less serious offences with lighter punishments. Correct Answer: Option A – A case which is not a warrant case According to the CrPC, a summons case is any criminal case that does not fall under the category of a warrant case. These cases generally involve minor offences with penalties such as fines or imprisonment not exceeding two years. Explanation: >> In a summons case, the procedure is simpler and faster compared to a warrant case. >> The accused is served with a summons instead of being arrested immediately. >> The trial procedure for summons cases is outlined in Chapter XX of the CrPC, which ensures a speedy and straightforward trial. >> Examples of offences tried as summons cases include public nuisance, defamation, and simple hurt. Since a summons case is defined as a case that is not a warrant case , the correct answer is Option A – A case which is not a warrant case .

Time Limit for Taking Cognizance Under Section 468 CrPC: Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, prescribes the time limits for taking cognizance of certain offences based on their punishment. This provision aims to prevent unnecessary delays in prosecuting offences and ensures timely legal proceedings. Defamation and Its Punishment: Defamation is an offence under Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 . The punishment for defamation is simple imprisonment for up to two years, a fine, or both . Correct Answer: Option C – Three Years As per Section 468(2)(c) of the CrPC, when the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not more than three years, the limitation period for taking cognizance is three years . Since defamation is punishable by imprisonment of up to two years, the time limit to take cognizance of a defamation case is three years from the date of the offence. Explanation: >> Section 468 CrPC ensures that cases involving minor offences are not kept pending indefinitely. >> Since defamation carries a punishment of up to two years, it falls within the category mentioned in Section 468(2)(c). >> The time limit of three years starts from the date on which the offence of defamation was committed. Thus, the correct answer is Option C – Three Years .

Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) defines " investigation " as the process of collection of evidence by a police officer or any person authorized by a Magistrate. So, both options A and B are correct: A. Investigation can be conducted by a police officer. B. Investigation can be conducted by any person authorized by a Magistrate. Option C is incorrect: Investigation cannot be conducted by a Magistrate himself. A Magistrate is responsible for judicial functions and decision-making, and the investigation is generally carried out by police officers or persons authorized by a Magistrate.

Joinder of charges refers to the combining of two or more charges against an accused in a single trial. It is allowed to avoid multiplicity of trials and to ensure a more efficient judicial process. In the context of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), the provision that deals with joinder of charges is: B. Section 220 of Criminal Procedure Code C. Section 221 of Criminal Procedure Code Both of these sections govern the joinder of charges in a criminal trial, allowing the court to try multiple charges against an accused in a single trial if certain conditions are met. Option A is incorrect: Section 200 of the Criminal Procedure Code does not deal with joinder of charges. It pertains to the examination of the complainant by a Magistrate to take cognizance of an offence. Therefore, the correct answer is: D. Both B and C

All the above is the correct answer to “Power under Section 311 of Criminal Procedure Code can be exercised by the Court”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Any sentence but sentence of death shall be subject to confirmation by high court is the correct answer to “Which of the following sentence may be passed by Additional Session Judge”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Three years is the correct answer to “An Executive Magistrate is empowered to secure a Security Bond from habitual offenders under Section 110 of Criminal Procedure Code for a period not exceeding:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Any sentence authorised by law is the correct answer to “Which of the following sentences a High Court can pass”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Seven years is the correct answer to “A person shall be eligible to be appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than-”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Section 197 is the correct answer to “Under Criminal Procedure Code provisions relating to prosecution of judge is provided under:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Laxmi v. Union of India (2016) is the correct answer to “In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions in the favour of acid attack victims”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

State Government is the correct answer to “Under the Criminal Procedure Code, who among the followings is empowered to decide as to what would be the language of the Court”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Not very material if the making of such statement is not dispatched by the accused is the correct answer to “Failure to get the signature of the person making the confession is”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

If that party is dispossessed unlawfully is the correct answer to “Executive Magistrate can put a party in possession of immovable property”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Upto seven years imprisonment is the correct answer to “Chief judicial magistrate may pass sentence”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

None of the above is the correct answer to “Mark the incorrect statement:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Is not a substantive evidence is the correct answer to “A non-confessional statement recorded under section 164 of Criminal Procedure Code”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Some person who is aggrieved by the offence is the correct answer to “Under Section 198 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no court can take cognizance of an offence against marriage (punishable under Chapter XX, Indian Penal Code) unless a complaint is made by:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Is just ground for his wife to refuse to live with him is the correct answer to “If a husband has contracted marriage with another woman or keeps a mistress”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

6 months is the correct answer to “If an offence is punishable with fine only then the limitation for taking cognizance shall be-”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Inherent powers is the correct answer to “Under Section 482 Criminal Procedure Code, the High Court exercises-”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Section 386 Criminal Procedure Code is the correct answer to “Which of the following deals with the powers of the Appellate Court”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

By High Court or court of sessions under section 439 Criminal Procedure Code is the correct answer to “Whether any condition imposed by a magistrate when releasing any person on bail can be setaside or modified? If yes, by whom under which provision:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

In any place in India is the correct answer to “If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him-”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Either A or B is the correct answer to “Section 167 of Criminal Procedure Code authorizes remand of an accused in”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

The day of arrest of the accused and the day on which the accused was remanded, if different, both have to be excluded is the correct answer to “For the purposes of computation of period of 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, for the purposes of section 167(2) of Criminal Procedure Code”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Section 172 of Criminal Procedure Code is the correct answer to “Maintenance of a case diary by an investigating officer is mandatory under”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

When there is a complaint case and police is also investigating the matter is the correct answer to “Section 210 of Criminal Procedure Code can be invoked”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

The Central Government is the correct answer to “No member of the Armed Forces of the Union shall be arrested for anything done in the discharge of his official duties except after attaining the consent of”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.

Any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate to take action against known or unknown person who has committed an offence is the correct answer to “'Complaint' means:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Code Of Criminal Procedure.