Constitution Of India — Part 1 MCQs with Explanations

The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is the head of the Election Commission of India and is responsible for conducting free and fair elections in the country. The process for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is outlined in the Constitution of India. Removal Process: - The Chief Election Commissioner enjoys security of tenure similar to that of a Supreme Court judge. - As per Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the CEC can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge. - This means the removal must be carried out through a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. - The President of India acts upon this resolution for the final removal. Why are other options incorrect? - Option A: Resolution of cabinet by two third majority – Incorrect, as the removal of the CEC does not involve the Cabinet but requires parliamentary approval. - Option C: On recommendation of Chief Justice of India – Incorrect, as the Chief Justice of India has no role in the removal process. - Option D: None of these – Incorrect, because Option B correctly states the removal process. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Resolution of both houses .

The Estimates Committee is one of the parliamentary committees in India. It is responsible for examining how funds allocated to various ministries and departments are utilized and suggesting improvements in economy and efficiency. Explanation: The Estimates Committee is the largest committee in the Indian Parliament. It consists of 30 members , all of whom are drawn from the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have representation in this committee. The members are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from among its members, based on the principle of proportional representation. The primary function of the committee is to examine the estimates of expenditure presented in the Union Budget and ensure that public funds are being used effectively. It has the authority to suggest measures to reduce wasteful expenditure and promote efficiency in administration. Why not other options? Option A: Public Accounts Committee (PAC) – This committee consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha), which is smaller than the Estimates Committee. Option C: Committee on Public Undertakings – This committee also consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha), making it smaller than the Estimates Committee. Option D: Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) – The number of members in a JPC varies, depending on the issue under investigation, but it is not a standing committee and does not have a fixed membership larger than the Estimates Committee. Thus, the Estimates Committee is the largest committee in the Indian Parliament, making Option B the correct answer.

The case of I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) was a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that reaffirmed the authority of judicial review over laws placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Amendment in 1951 to protect certain laws from judicial scrutiny, particularly land reform laws. However, the Supreme Court in this case ruled that even laws under the Ninth Schedule are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure doctrine . Explanation: The Supreme Court held that any law placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Keshavananda Bharati judgment ) could be reviewed by the judiciary if it violated the basic structure of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights. Statement 1: Judicial Review on legislations inserted in Schedule 9 is allowed when the legislation is not in conformity with basic structure doctrine. This statement is true . The Supreme Court ruled that judicial review is applicable to laws placed in the Ninth Schedule if they violate the basic structure doctrine. Laws cannot escape scrutiny merely by being placed in the Ninth Schedule. Statement 2: Legislation affecting Fundamental Rights can be reviewed. This statement is also true . The Supreme Court clarified that if a law under the Ninth Schedule affects Fundamental Rights in a manner that violates the basic structure of the Constitution, it can be reviewed and struck down if necessary. Since both statements 1 and 2 are correct, Option C (Both 1 and 2) is the correct answer.

An ordinance is a temporary law that is promulgated by the President of India under Article 123 of the Constitution when the Parliament is not in session. It has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but must be approved by the legislature within a specific time frame to remain valid. Explanation: According to Article 123(2)(a) of the Constitution of India, an ordinance issued by the President must be laid before both Houses of Parliament when they reconvene. The ordinance will cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the date of reassembly unless it is approved by Parliament before that period ends. The six-week period is calculated from the date when both Houses of Parliament reconvene. If one House meets at a different time than the other, the countdown starts from the later date. If Parliament does not approve the ordinance within this period, it automatically lapses. Why not other options? Option A: 3 months – Incorrect, as the Constitution specifies 6 weeks , not 3 months. Option B: 6 months – Incorrect, as an ordinance does not remain valid for 6 months. Instead, it ceases to operate 6 weeks after Parliament reconvenes. Option D: 15 days – Incorrect, as there is no provision in the Constitution stating that an ordinance will lapse in 15 days. Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 6 weeks.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the lower house of Parliament in India. The Speaker is responsible for maintaining order and ensuring that parliamentary proceedings are conducted smoothly. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and remains impartial while discharging duties. Explanation: Under Article 100(1) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker does not cast a vote in the first instance like other members of the House. However, if there is a tie in votes, the Speaker has the power to cast a deciding vote to break the tie. This vote is known as the casting vote . The purpose of this provision is to maintain the Speaker's neutrality in the House. By refraining from voting during the initial voting process, the Speaker ensures impartiality, and the casting vote is used only when necessary to resolve a deadlock. Why not other options? Option B: The right to vote like other members of the House – Incorrect, because the Speaker does not have a normal voting right. The Speaker votes only in case of a tie. Option C: No right to vote – Incorrect, because the Speaker has the right to vote, but only in case of a tie. Option D: Two votes - one in ordinary course and other in case of tie – Incorrect, as the Speaker does not vote like regular members and has only one vote, which is exercised only in case of a tie. Thus, the correct answer is Option A: The right to vote only in case of tie.

A Financial Emergency is a special provision under the Indian Constitution that allows the central government to take control of the country's financial stability in times of crisis. It is declared by the President of India under Article 360 when the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Explanation: Under Article 360 , if the President is satisfied that a financial emergency exists, they may declare a Financial Emergency. Once proclaimed, this emergency remains in operation unless revoked by the President. Parliamentary approval is required within two months . During a Financial Emergency, the central government gains extensive control over state finances, including: 1. Reduction of government salaries: The salaries of government employees, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, can be reduced. 2. Control over financial matters: The President can direct states to follow certain financial policies to restore economic stability. 3. Allocation of resources: The financial autonomy of states is significantly curtailed as the central government takes charge of financial decisions. Why not other options? Option A: Article 352 – Incorrect, as Article 352 deals with a National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Option B: Article 356 – Incorrect, as Article 356 provides for President’s Rule in a state when its constitutional machinery fails. Option C: Article 359 – Incorrect, as Article 359 allows the President to suspend Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency, but it does not deal with a Financial Emergency. Thus, the correct answer is Option D: Article 360.

According to the Constitution of India , the tenure and retirement age of High Court judges are clearly defined. If any dispute arises regarding the age of a High Court judge, the authority to make a final decision lies with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) . This provision ensures that judicial independence is maintained and prevents unnecessary executive interference. Explanation: As per Article 217(3) of the Constitution of India , if any question arises about the age of a High Court Judge, the decision of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) shall be final. This provision is important to: 1. Maintain judicial autonomy: The judiciary should remain free from political and executive influence, and the CJI, being the head of the judiciary, is entrusted with this responsibility. 2. Prevent disputes affecting judicial appointments: Ensuring clarity in a judge's tenure prevents unnecessary legal challenges or uncertainties. 3. Avoid potential bias: If the executive were to decide on a judge's age, it could lead to conflicts of interest or political misuse. By entrusting this power to the CJI, the Constitution ensures fairness. Why not other options? Option A: President of India – Incorrect, because while the President appoints High Court judges, disputes regarding their age are specifically decided by the CJI as per Article 217(3). Option C: Chief Justice of High Court – Incorrect, as the Chief Justice of a High Court does not have constitutional authority to make a final decision on a judge's age. The decision rests solely with the CJI. Option D: Collegium of Supreme Court – Incorrect, as the Collegium is responsible for recommending judicial appointments but does not decide disputes regarding the age of judges. Option E: None of the above – Incorrect, because Article 217(3) explicitly states that the CJI's decision is final. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Chief Justice of India.

The "Right to Work" refers to an individual's right to employment and livelihood. In the Indian Constitution, it is not a fundamental right but a directive principle that guides the state in ensuring economic justice. Explanation: The Right to Work is enshrined in Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) . Article 41 states that the state shall make effective provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement. However, this right is not justiciable, meaning that individuals cannot directly enforce it through the courts. Why is it part of DPSP? The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for governance that aim to establish socio-economic justice. While they are not legally enforceable, they serve as a framework for government policies. The inclusion of the Right to Work in DPSP emphasizes the state's responsibility to promote employment and economic well-being. Why not other options? Option A: Fundamental Rights – Incorrect, because the Right to Work is not explicitly mentioned as a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution. Fundamental Rights are justiciable, whereas DPSPs are not. Option C: Preamble of the Constitution – Incorrect, because while the Preamble mentions "Justice—Social, Economic, and Political," it does not explicitly include the Right to Work. The Preamble sets the ideological foundation but does not confer enforceable rights. Option D: None of the above – Incorrect, as the Right to Work is clearly mentioned under DPSP in Article 41. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Directive Principles of State Policy.

First, let's define the key terms: Republic: A republic is a form of government where the head of state is not a hereditary monarch (i.e., not a king or queen who inherits the position). The power rests with the elected representatives of the people. Secular: A secular state is one that does not officially endorse or favor any particular religion. It maintains neutrality in religious matters and ensures equal rights for all religions. Democracy: A democracy is a system of government where supreme power is vested in the people and exercised directly by them or by their elected representatives under a free electoral system. Now, let's match the terms in List I with their corresponding definitions in List II: a. Republic - 1. Head of the State is not a hereditary monarch: This is a correct match. The definition of a republic directly states that the head of state is not a hereditary monarch. b. Secular - 2. State does not recognize any religion as a state religion: This is also a correct match. A secular state's defining characteristic is its non-endorsement of any specific religion. c. Democracy - 3. A form of government which gets its authority from the will of the people: This is the correct match. The definition accurately describes the core principle of democracy: that power originates from the consent of the governed. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: a-1, b-2, c-3

Vice President of India: The Vice President is the second-highest office in the Indian government, primarily serving as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Election of the Vice President: The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising members of both Houses of Parliament – the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). Correct Answer: B - Both Houses of Parliament This is the correct answer because the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Vice President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament through a secret ballot. Each member gets one vote. Why other options are incorrect: Option A (House of the People): Incorrect. While the Lok Sabha (House of the People) is a part of the electoral college, it alone does not elect the Vice President. The Rajya Sabha's members also participate in the election process. Option C (Council of States): Incorrect. Similar to option A, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is only one part of the electoral college and cannot elect the Vice President on its own. Option D (Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures): Incorrect. State legislatures are not involved in the election of the Vice President. The electoral college is solely comprised of the members of both Houses of Parliament.

The 9 th Schedule of the Indian Constitution was introduced by the First Amendment in 1951 to protect land reform and other laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of Fundamental Rights. Initially, the laws placed under the 9 th Schedule were immune from judicial review, meaning they could not be challenged even if they violated Fundamental Rights. However, in the landmark judgement of I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) , the Supreme Court ruled that laws placed under the 9 th Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati case) are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. This means that any law included in the 9 th Schedule after this cutoff date can be challenged in court if it damages the basic structure or infringes upon Fundamental Rights. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: Can be challenged in a court of law .

The correct answer is C: Finance Minister . Let's break down why: The question asks who presents the "annual financial statement" (also known as the budget) to Parliament. * The President (Option A): The President is the head of state, but doesn't directly handle financial matters like the budget presentation. The president role is more ceremonial and supervisory. * The Prime Minister (Option B): The Prime Minister is the head of the government but, while influential, the direct responsibility of presenting the budget lies with the Finance Minister. The Prime Minister oversees the general functioning. * The Finance Minister (Option C): The Finance Minister is specifically responsible for managing the country's finances. This includes preparing and presenting the annual budget (the "annual financial statement") to Parliament. * The Speaker of the House (Option D): The Speaker presides over the proceedings of the Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament) and maintains order. They do not present the budget. Therefore, the Finance Minister is the one who lays the annual financial statement before both Houses of Parliament.

Article 19 of the Constitution of India: Article 19 guarantees certain fundamental rights related to freedom of speech and expression, movement, assembly, association, profession, and residence. These rights are essential for a democratic society and ensure that citizens can express themselves freely within reasonable restrictions imposed by the state. Correct Answer: Option B - Available only to citizens of India Reason: The fundamental rights under Article 19 are explicitly granted only to citizens of India. These rights include: >> Freedom of speech and expression >> Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms >> Freedom to form associations or unions >> Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India >> Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India >> Freedom to practice any profession, occupation, trade, or business Why Other Options Are Incorrect: Option A: Available to all persons in India - Incorrect because Article 19 is specifically limited to Indian citizens and does not extend to foreigners or non-citizens. Option C: Available to persons of foreign origin - Incorrect because foreigners in India do not enjoy Article 19 rights, though they may have other fundamental rights like those under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). Option D: Both B and C above - Incorrect because Article 19 does not apply to persons of foreign origin, making this option incorrect. Conclusion: Only Indian citizens are entitled to the fundamental freedoms guaranteed under Article 19, making Option B the correct answer.

The correct answer is Option C: Minerva Mills v. UOI . Let's break down why: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution . The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made significant changes to the Constitution, including adding clauses to Article 368. Article 368(4) , inserted by the 42nd Amendment, essentially tried to limit the power of judicial review over constitutional amendments. It stated that any amendment made under Article 368 could not be challenged in any court on any ground. However, the Supreme Court, in the landmark case of Minerva Mills v. Union of India (UOI) in 1980 , declared Article 368(4) as unconstitutional and invalid . The Court held that Article 368(4) violated the basic structure of the Constitution . The power of judicial review is a fundamental aspect of the basic structure, and the Parliament cannot take it away through amendments. Let's look at why the other options are incorrect: Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain: This case dealt with election disputes and the 39th Amendment, not Article 368(4) directly. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala: This case established the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution, but it was before the 42nd Amendment. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab: This case initially restricted Parliament's power to amend fundamental rights but was later overturned by the Kesavananda Bharati case. Therefore, Minerva Mills v. UOI is the only case where Article 368(4), inserted by the 42nd Amendment, was declared invalid.

In the context of the Constitution of India, the correct statement regarding the removal of a member of the State Public Service Commission is provided in Option D . According to Article 317 of the Constitution of India, a member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the President on the ground of misbehaviour after receiving a report of the Supreme Court following due inquiry. The other options do not accurately reflect the process of removal of a member of the State Public Service Commission as outlined in the Indian Constitution. Therefore, Option D: President on the ground of misbehaviour after receiving report of the Supreme Court after due enquiry is the correct statement regarding the removal of a member of the State Public Service Commission in accordance with the Constitution of India.

Article 243D of the Constitution of India deals with reservation of seats in Panchayats. It states that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women . This reservation includes the seats reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) . Therefore, the one-third reservation is a combined quota that already accounts for SC and ST women. Hence, Statement 1 is correct because the one-third reservation for women includes women from SC and ST categories. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reservation for SC and ST women is not separate or additional ; it is included within the overall one-third reservation for women. Thus, the correct answer is Option A: 1 only .

Option A: Colourable Legislation ⇔ What cannot be done directly can be done indirectly This statement is correct . The doctrine of colourable legislation means that if a legislature lacks the power to make a law directly, it cannot achieve the same result by disguising it or using indirect methods. Option B: Pith and Substance ⇔ Incidental encroachment on the field of another legislature is permissible This statement is also correct . The doctrine of pith and substance means that when determining the competence of a legislature to enact a law, the court looks at the 'true nature and character' or 'pith and substance' of the law. If the law falls within the legislative competence of that legislature, an incidental encroachment on a matter assigned to another legislature does not make the law invalid. Option C: Territorial Nexus ⇔ Subject of legislation must have territorial connection with the state This statement is correct . The doctrine of territorial nexus implies that the law made by a state legislature is valid only if there is a sufficient connection between the subject matter of the law and the state. Option D: Repugnancy ⇔ A situation in which a law made by the Union is in conflict with a law made by a state This statement is also correct . Repugnancy arises when a law made by the Parliament (Union) is inconsistent with a law made by a State Legislature on a matter in the Concurrent List. In such a situation, the Union law will prevail, and the State law will be void to the extent of the repugnancy. Option E: None Of the Above Since all the pairs are correctly matched, this is the correct answer. Therefore, the answer is E.

In the Constitution of India , Article 123 grants the President of India the power to promulgate ordinances when either of the two houses of Parliament (i.e., Lok Sabha or Council of States, which is often referred to as Rajya Sabha) is not in session, and circumstances exist that require immediate action. So, the President can exercise this power in any of the following circumstances: Option A : When Lok Sabha is not in session and circumstances exist that render it necessary for the President to take immediate action. Option B : When Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is not in session, and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action. Option C : When both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) are not in session, and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which make it necessary for him to take immediate action. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: In all the above circumstances , as the President can exercise ordinance-making power when any of these situations apply.

The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last subject is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. It includes the power to be considered by both the union and state government.

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines or principles set out in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They are not enforceable by any court, meaning they do not have legal binding force. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and the government is expected to apply these principles while formulating policies. The binding force behind DPSP comes from the Constitution itself, as it is a constitutional mandate for the state to strive towards these goals for the welfare of the people. Important Points: >> DPSPs are part of the Constitution of India. >> They guide the state in making laws and policies, but they are not enforceable in courts. >> The binding force behind them is their constitutional nature.

Assertion (A): The President of India can issue a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution if there is an imminent danger of war , external aggression , or armed rebellion . The earlier term "internal disturbance" was replaced by "armed rebellion" through the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. Reason (R): During an emergency, the President has the power to suspend certain fundamental rights under Article 359 of the Constitution. These rights can be restricted or suspended for the duration of the emergency, especially in cases related to war or external aggression. Since the Reason explains the Assertion correctly, the answer is: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is Option C: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha must resign from the membership of his party after being elected as a Speaker The Speaker of the Lok Sabha in India has several powers and functions, but it's important to note that they do not resign from their party after being elected as a Speaker. Here's an explanation of the other options: - Option A: When there is a deadlock in a vote, the Speaker can cast his casting vote to break the deadlock. This is a legitimate power of the Speaker. - Option B: The Speaker decides whether a bill is a money bill or not. This is also one of the powers and functions of the Speaker. - Option D: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds a higher rank than all cabinet ministers except the Prime Minister and Deputy Prime Minister. This is another valid function of the Speaker. However, Option C: stating that the Speaker must resign from the membership of his party after being elected as a Speaker is not accurate. The Speaker is expected to be impartial and is generally expected to sever their active ties with their political party while presiding over the proceedings in the Lok Sabha, but they do not formally resign from the party. So, the correct answer is Option C: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha must resign from the membership of his party after being elected as a Speaker is not a power or function of the Speaker.

Article 17 of the Constitution is the correct answer to “Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

The doctrine of sovereign immunity is not applicable in case of violation of fundamental rights is the correct answer to “Which of the following observation was not made by the court through J. S. Verma J. (as he then was) in Neelabati Bahera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

2 and 3 are correct is the correct answer to “Consider the following statements: The Indian Constitution is: 1. An unwritten constitution 2. A written constitution 3. Largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935. 4. A gift of British Parliament Of these statement”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

By virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India, law made by Parliament shall prevail is the correct answer to “In case of repugnancy between the law made by the Parliament and law made by the State Legislature, with respect to any matter enumerated in concurrent list:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

81st is the correct answer to “By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Clause (4B) was added to Article 16 of the Constitution”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Pre-Constitutional Laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights remain dormant but not dead is the correct answer to “Doctrine of Eclipse means”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Articles 19 and 21 is the correct answer to “In case of A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found conflicting with the two Articles”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Anwar Ali Sarkar case is the correct answer to “"Article 14 of the Indian Constitution allows classification but prohibits class legislation." It was laid down in”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

New India Assurance Company Ltd. v. Nusli Neville Wadia is the correct answer to “In which recent judgment it was held that if landlord being State within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution is required to prove fairness and reasonablness on its part in initiating proceeding, it is for it to show how its prayer meets the constitutional requirements of Article 14 of the Constitution”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Both 1 and 2 is the correct answer to “Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India comprises of which of the following? 1. Individual rights 2. Group rights Select the correct answer:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 1125 is the correct answer to “Part XIV-A entitled "Tribunals" was inserted by the Constitution (Forty Second) Amendment Act, 1976. Clause 2(d) of Article 323-A and Clause (3)(d) of Article 323-B excluded jurisdiction of all courts, except that of the Supreme Court under Article 136. In which case were these clauses struck down as being unconstitutional to the extent they barred the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Articles 226/227 and that of the Supreme Court under Article 32”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

President is the correct answer to “Under Article 3 of Constitution the Parliament may by law form a new state. The Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in parliament except on recommendation of”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Right is the correct answer to “The method of judicial control over delegated legislation is by 'issuing writs of mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and issuing injunctions'. The statement is”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys is the correct answer to “Article 262 of the Constitution of India relates to:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

The law made by Parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the State is the correct answer to “In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by the State Legislatures, which one of the following shall prevail”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 is the correct answer to “Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer: List I (Principles) List II (Case Law) a. Equal work for Equal pay 1. R. D. Shetty vs. The International Airport Authority of India b. "Agencies or Instrumentalition" of the State are covered under The definition of State Under Artic le 12 of the Constitution 2. Rudal Sah vs. State of Bihar c. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of state policy are Supplementary and complimentary To each other 3. Randhir Singh vs. Union of India d. Damages can awarded for Violation of Fundamental Rights Under Article 21 of Constitution 4. Unikrishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Security of State is the correct answer to “Right to Freedom of Religion cannot be restricted on the ground of”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.

Delegated legislation is the correct answer to “Law making is the duty of the Legislature. Bye-law making power granted to the Executive by the Legislature is called:”. This question is standard in competitive examination syllabi for Constitution Of India.