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Question 1 of 15
★ FPSC Charge Nurse 2022
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2023
★ FPSC Charge Nurse 2022
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2023
What is the adult chest compression to ventilation ratio in single-rescuer basic life support (CPR)?
Correct Answer: Option B — 1802
Detailed Academic Explanation:
According to American Heart Association (AHA) and international resuscitation guidelines, the compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR is 30 compressions to 2 breaths, at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute and depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Basic Life Support CPR Compression Ratio
🎯Examiner's Trap & Study Tip:In both single and two-rescuer adult CPR the ratio is 30:2. For infants and children, two-rescuer CPR becomes 15:2.
A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving intravenous potassium chloride (KCl). Which method of administration is strictly contraindicated?
Correct Answer: Option B — IV push / direct rapid intravenous bolus
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Direct intravenous push or rapid bolus of potassium chloride causes immediate cardiac arrest and lethal ventricular fibrillation. KCl must always be administered diluted in compatible IV solutions and delivered slowly with an infusion controller.
On the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), the minimum possible total score and maximum score are:
Correct Answer: Option B — 3 and 15
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates Eye Opening (1-4), Verbal Response (1-5), and Motor Response (1-6). The lowest possible score is 3 (deep coma / brain death), and the highest score is 15 (fully alert and oriented).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Score Range
What is the primary antidote for acute unfractionated heparin toxicity?
Correct Answer: Option B — Protamine Sulfate
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Protamine sulfate binds heparin through ionic interaction to form a stable, inactive salt complex, rapidly neutralizing heparin's anticoagulant activity. Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Antidotes in Clinical Pharmacology
🎯Examiner's Trap & Study Tip:Protamine sulfate = Heparin; Vitamin K = Warfarin; Naloxone = Opioids; Flumazenil = Benzodiazepines.
Question 6 of 15
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2023
★ PPSC Charge Nurse 2022
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2023
★ PPSC Charge Nurse 2022
An adult post-thyroidectomy patient complains of tingling around the mouth and fingers with muscle cramping. What is the suspected condition?
Correct Answer: Option B — Hypocalcemia (tetany due to accidental parathyroid injury)
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Accidental removal or devascularization of parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy causes acute hypocalcemia. Clinical signs include perioral paresthesia, carpopedal spasms, positive Chvostek's sign, and positive Trousseau's sign.
A physician prescribes 1000 mL normal saline to be infused over 8 hours. The drop factor of the IV administration set is 15 drops/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
Correct Answer: Option B — 31 gtts/min
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Flow rate (gtts/min) = (Total volume in mL * Drop factor) / (Total time in minutes) = (1000 * 15) / (8 * 60) = 15000 / 480 = 31.25, rounded to 31 drops/minute.
When administering intramuscular (IM) injections to an adult in the ventrogluteal site, which anatomical landmarks are identified?
Correct Answer: Option B — Greater trochanter, anterior superior iliac spine, and iliac crest
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm over the greater trochanter of the femur, pointing the index finger toward the anterior superior iliac spine, and extending the middle finger along the iliac crest (forming a V shape).
Which scale is widely utilized in clinical nursing wards to assess a patient's risk of developing pressure injuries / decubitus ulcers?
Correct Answer: Option D — Norton and Braden scales
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The Braden Scale assesses sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear. Norton and Braden scales are the two primary validated tools for pressure injury risk prediction.
What is the temperature, pressure, and standard holding time for effective moist heat sterilization using an autoclave?
Correct Answer: Option B — 121°C (250°F) at 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Saturated steam under pressure in an autoclave standardly operates at 121°C (250°F) at 15 pounds per square inch (psi) gauge pressure for 15 to 20 minutes to destroy all vegetative microorganisms and bacterial endospores.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Autoclaving Parameters & Infection Control
Question 12 of 15
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2022
★ KPPSC Staff Nurse 2022
In the nursing process framework, which step follows comprehensive patient assessment?
Correct Answer: Option C — Nursing Diagnosis
Detailed Academic Explanation:
The 5 systematic steps of the nursing process are: 1. Assessment, 2. Nursing Diagnosis, 3. Planning (Outcome identification), 4. Implementation, and 5. Evaluation (ADPIE).
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:ADPIE Framework in Nursing Foundations
Question 13 of 15
★ FPSC Charge Nurse 2023
★ FPSC Charge Nurse 2023
Which of the following is considered a rapid-acting insulin analog?
Correct Answer: Option C — Insulin Lispro (Humalog)
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Insulin Lispro, Aspart, and Glulisine are rapid-acting insulins with onset of action in 10-15 minutes and peak action around 30-90 minutes. Glargine is long-acting; Regular is short-acting; NPH is intermediate-acting.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Insulin Pharmacokinetics in Diabetes Management
Question 14 of 15
★ KPPSC Charge Nurse 2021
★ KPPSC Charge Nurse 2021
Which position is most recommended for a patient experiencing acute dyspnea / shortness of breath?
Correct Answer: Option B — High Fowler's position (60° - 90°)
Detailed Academic Explanation:
High Fowler's position (60-90° upright elevation) relieves pressure from abdominal organs against the diaphragm, promotes maximal lung expansion, and optimizes oxygenation in respiratory distress.
💡Key Conceptual Anchor:Patient Positioning for Respiratory Distress
According to the Pakistan Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), the BCG vaccine protects against:
Correct Answer: Option B — Severe Childhood Tuberculosis
Detailed Academic Explanation:
Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is administered at birth intradermally to protect against severe forms of childhood tuberculosis, including tuberculous meningitis and disseminated miliary TB.
In competitive commission exams (FPSC, PPSC, KPPSC, SPSC, CSS, PMS), questions are frequently phrased with distractor options designed to catch rote learners. Whenever you answer an MCQ, read the Detailed Academic Explanation and Conceptual Anchor to understand why the remaining options are incorrect.