Question 1 of 40
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Which finding most strongly indicates adequate renal perfusion in an adult patient? A Respiratory rate of 24/min B Dry oral mucosa C Urine output of about 35 mL/hour D Capillary refill of 4 seconds
Correct Answer: Option C — Urine output of about 35 mL/hour Detailed Academic Explanation: Urine output of approximately 30 mL/hour or more in an adult generally suggests adequate renal perfusion, although clinical context matters.
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Question 2 of 40
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A postoperative patient becomes restless, tachycardic, and hypotensive with cool clammy skin. What should the nurse do first? A Administer oral fluids B Assess airway, breathing, and circulation C Give a sedative D Encourage ambulation
Correct Answer: Option B — Assess airway, breathing, and circulation Detailed Academic Explanation: These findings suggest possible shock. Immediate assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation is the priority before definitive treatment.
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Question 3 of 40
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Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure? A Peripheral neuropathy B Ascites only C Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea D Severe constipation
Correct Answer: Option C — Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea Detailed Academic Explanation: Left ventricular failure causes pulmonary venous congestion, commonly producing dyspnea, orthopnea, and pulmonary crackles.
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Question 4 of 40
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A patient with diabetes is sweating, trembling, and confused. What is the priority nursing action? A Administer long-acting insulin B Check blood glucose promptly C Restrict carbohydrates D Encourage exercise
Correct Answer: Option B — Check blood glucose promptly Detailed Academic Explanation: Sweating, tremor, and confusion are classic manifestations of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should be checked promptly and treatment given according to the patient's condition.
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Question 5 of 40
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Which nursing intervention is most effective for preventing pressure injury in an immobile patient? A Keeping the patient in one position B Massaging reddened bony areas vigorously C Restricting fluids D Regular repositioning and pressure redistribution
Correct Answer: Option D — Regular repositioning and pressure redistribution Detailed Academic Explanation: Frequent repositioning and pressure redistribution reduce prolonged tissue compression and are central to pressure-injury prevention.
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Question 6 of 40
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Which position is generally most appropriate for a patient experiencing acute dyspnea? A Flat supine position B Prone position C Trendelenburg position D High Fowler's position
Correct Answer: Option D — High Fowler's position Detailed Academic Explanation: Upright positioning improves lung expansion and reduces diaphragmatic pressure, often easing acute dyspnea.
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Question 7 of 40
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A patient receiving oxygen by nasal cannula develops increasing drowsiness. Which assessment is most important? A Body temperature B Bowel sounds C Level of consciousness and respiratory status D Skin turgor
Correct Answer: Option C — Level of consciousness and respiratory status Detailed Academic Explanation: Increasing drowsiness may indicate worsening hypoventilation or carbon dioxide retention, particularly in susceptible patients. Respiratory assessment is essential.
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Question 8 of 40
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Which laboratory finding is most suggestive of iron-deficiency anemia? A Increased mean corpuscular volume B Macrocytic red cells C Microcytic hypochromic red cells D Increased platelet destruction
Correct Answer: Option C — Microcytic hypochromic red cells Detailed Academic Explanation: Iron deficiency classically produces microcytic, hypochromic red cells with reduced hemoglobin synthesis.
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Question 9 of 40
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Which action is essential when administering a medication through an intravenous line? A Administer without checking compatibility B Verify the medication, patient, dose, route, and relevant safety checks C Mix every medication with the same solution D Skip assessment if the patient is stable
Correct Answer: Option B — Verify the medication, patient, dose, route, and relevant safety checks Detailed Academic Explanation: Medication safety requires verification of the patient, medication, dose, route, timing, allergies, and relevant compatibility considerations.
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Question 10 of 40
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Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypovolemic shock? A Bradycardia with warm skin B Tachycardia with weak peripheral pulses C Hypertension with bounding pulses D Slow respiratory rate
Correct Answer: Option B — Tachycardia with weak peripheral pulses Detailed Academic Explanation: Hypovolemia reduces circulating volume, producing compensatory tachycardia, vasoconstriction, weak pulses, and eventually hypotension.
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Question 11 of 40
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Which nursing action best reduces aspiration risk in a patient with impaired swallowing? A Feed rapidly B Keep the patient completely flat C Offer large mouthfuls D Maintain an upright position during feeding
Correct Answer: Option D — Maintain an upright position during feeding Detailed Academic Explanation: Upright positioning during and after feeding helps reduce aspiration risk. Feeding should also be slow and appropriately modified.
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Question 12 of 40
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Which finding is most concerning in a patient with a head injury? A Mild thirst B Stable appetite C Progressive decline in level of consciousness D Mild localized bruising
Correct Answer: Option C — Progressive decline in level of consciousness Detailed Academic Explanation: A declining level of consciousness may indicate increasing intracranial pressure or intracranial bleeding and requires urgent evaluation.
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Question 13 of 40
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Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who becomes breathless? A Withhold prescribed oxygen automatically B Force rapid deep breaths continuously C Place the patient flat D Encourage pursed-lip breathing
Correct Answer: Option D — Encourage pursed-lip breathing Detailed Academic Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing prolongs expiration and can reduce air trapping. Oxygen should be administered according to the prescribed target and clinical assessment.
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Question 14 of 40
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A patient taking warfarin requires monitoring primarily through which laboratory test? A Activated partial thromboplastin time B Prothrombin time and international normalized ratio C Serum amylase D Serum bilirubin only
Correct Answer: Option B — Prothrombin time and international normalized ratio Detailed Academic Explanation: Warfarin therapy is monitored primarily with PT and INR. Excessive anticoagulation increases bleeding risk.
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Question 15 of 40
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Which electrolyte abnormality poses a particularly high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias? A Mild hypernatremia B Mild hypercalcemia C Mild hypermagnesemia D Significant potassium abnormality
Correct Answer: Option D — Significant potassium abnormality Detailed Academic Explanation: Both severe hypokalemia and hyperkalemia can disturb cardiac conduction and produce potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
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Question 16 of 40
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Which pulse characteristic should the nurse assess in a patient with suspected peripheral arterial disease? A Hearing acuity B Bowel frequency C Pupil size D Peripheral pulse strength
Correct Answer: Option D — Peripheral pulse strength Detailed Academic Explanation: Peripheral arterial disease reduces arterial blood flow and may produce weak or absent distal pulses.
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Question 17 of 40
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Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing postoperative atelectasis? A Prolonged bed rest B Restricting coughing C Incentive spirometry and deep breathing D Keeping the patient sedated
Correct Answer: Option D — Keeping the patient sedated Detailed Academic Explanation: Deep breathing and incentive spirometry promote alveolar expansion and help prevent postoperative atelectasis.
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Question 18 of 40
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A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops fever and chills. What should the nurse do first? A Increase the transfusion rate B Stop the transfusion C Give another unit immediately D Encourage oral fluids only
Correct Answer: Option B — Stop the transfusion Detailed Academic Explanation: Fever and chills may indicate a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped immediately and the patient assessed according to transfusion-reaction protocol.
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Question 19 of 40
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Which sign is most characteristic of dehydration in an adult? A Moist mucous membranes B Concentrated urine and orthostatic dizziness C Generalized edema D Bounding pulse
Correct Answer: Option B — Concentrated urine and orthostatic dizziness Detailed Academic Explanation: Dehydration commonly causes concentrated urine, thirst, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and orthostatic symptoms.
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Question 20 of 40
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Which precaution is most appropriate for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis? A Contact precautions only B Standard precautions only C Droplet precautions only D Airborne precautions
Correct Answer: Option D — Airborne precautions Detailed Academic Explanation: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles; appropriate airborne precautions and respiratory protection are required.
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Question 21 of 40
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Which action is most important before inserting an indwelling urinary catheter? A Give the patient a large meal B Confirm indication and use aseptic technique C Apply talcum powder D Clamp the drainage tubing
Correct Answer: Option B — Confirm indication and use aseptic technique Detailed Academic Explanation: Catheterization should have an appropriate indication and be performed using aseptic technique to reduce infection risk.
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Question 22 of 40
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Which clinical finding is most typical of an acute asthma exacerbation? A Inspiratory stridor only B Wheezing with expiratory difficulty C Massive peripheral edema D Severe jaundice
Correct Answer: Option B — Wheezing with expiratory difficulty Detailed Academic Explanation: Acute asthma causes reversible bronchoconstriction, often producing expiratory wheezing and prolonged expiration.
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Question 23 of 40
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Which dietary modification is generally appropriate for a patient with hypertension? A Increase processed foods B Increase sodium intake C Reduce excessive sodium intake D Eliminate all carbohydrates
Correct Answer: Option C — Reduce excessive sodium intake Detailed Academic Explanation: Excessive sodium can contribute to fluid retention and elevated blood pressure; sodium reduction is an important dietary measure.
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Question 24 of 40
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Which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A Warm dry skin B Increased appetite C Persistent vomiting with decreasing consciousness D Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: Option C — Persistent vomiting with decreasing consciousness Detailed Academic Explanation: Persistent vomiting and declining consciousness can occur with increased intracranial pressure and require urgent assessment.
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Question 25 of 40
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A patient with chronic kidney disease has a rising serum creatinine level. What does this most directly suggest? A Improved renal filtration B Reduced renal filtration C Increased lung capacity D Improved glucose utilization
Correct Answer: Option B — Reduced renal filtration Detailed Academic Explanation: Creatinine rises when renal filtration declines, although interpretation should consider baseline values and clinical context.
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Question 26 of 40
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Which nursing action is appropriate for a patient receiving enteral feeding through a tube? A Ignore tube position B Place the patient flat throughout feeding C Keep the head of bed elevated as appropriate D Give all feeds rapidly
Correct Answer: Option C — Keep the head of bed elevated as appropriate Detailed Academic Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed reduces aspiration risk during enteral feeding. Tube placement and tolerance should also be assessed according to protocol.
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Question 27 of 40
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A patient with heart failure suddenly gains 2 kg in a few days. What is the most likely explanation? A Increased muscle mass B Fluid retention C Improved cardiac output D Reduced body water
Correct Answer: Option B — Fluid retention Detailed Academic Explanation: Rapid weight gain in heart failure usually indicates fluid accumulation rather than true tissue gain.
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Question 28 of 40
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Which finding is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome? A Severe proteinuria with edema B Persistent hyperventilation C Marked leukocytosis only D Dry skin without edema
Correct Answer: Option B — Persistent hyperventilation Detailed Academic Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and often hyperlipidemia.
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Question 29 of 40
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Which nursing assessment is the priority after administering an opioid analgesic? A Appetite only B Hair texture C Respiratory rate and level of consciousness D Skin pigmentation
Correct Answer: Option C — Respiratory rate and level of consciousness Detailed Academic Explanation: Opioids can cause respiratory depression and excessive sedation, making respiratory and neurological assessment essential.
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Question 30 of 40
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Which finding is most suggestive of hypokalemia? A Severe jaundice B Muscle weakness and cardiac rhythm changes C Increased bowel sounds only D Facial flushing
Correct Answer: Option B — Muscle weakness and cardiac rhythm changes Detailed Academic Explanation: Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, cramps, constipation, and potentially serious cardiac dysrhythmias.
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Question 31 of 40
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Which finding is most characteristic of appendicitis? A Right lower abdominal pain with associated gastrointestinal symptoms B Painless generalized edema C Bilateral hearing loss D Productive cough with hemoptysis
Correct Answer: Option B — Painless generalized edema Detailed Academic Explanation: Appendicitis commonly causes abdominal pain that localizes toward the right lower quadrant, often with nausea, vomiting, or fever.
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Question 32 of 40
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Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a patient with Parkinson disease who has difficulty walking? A Encourage safe mobility and fall prevention B Keep the patient permanently in bed C Remove assistive devices D Encourage rapid unsupervised walking
Correct Answer: Option C — Remove assistive devices Detailed Academic Explanation: Parkinson disease can impair gait and balance. Safe mobility, environmental modification, and fall prevention help maintain independence.
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Question 33 of 40
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Which laboratory finding is expected in vitamin B12 deficiency? A Microcytic anemia B Megaloblastic anemia C Severe thrombocytosis D Increased red-cell concentration
Correct Answer: Option C — Severe thrombocytosis Detailed Academic Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs DNA synthesis and commonly causes megaloblastic anemia; neurological manifestations may also occur.
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Question 34 of 40
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Which nursing measure is particularly important for a patient receiving chemotherapy? A Stop all prescribed medications B Encourage exposure to infectious contacts C Ignore oral mucosal changes D Monitor for infection and treatment-related adverse effects
Correct Answer: Option D — Monitor for infection and treatment-related adverse effects Detailed Academic Explanation: Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow and damage rapidly dividing tissues, requiring monitoring for infection, bleeding, mucositis, and other adverse effects.
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Question 35 of 40
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Which finding most strongly indicates effective fluid resuscitation in a patient with hypovolemia? A Worsening confusion B Improving urine output and perfusion C Increasing tachycardia D Increasing skin mottling
Correct Answer: Option B — Improving urine output and perfusion Detailed Academic Explanation: Improved urine output, mental status, peripheral perfusion, and vital signs suggest restoration of circulating volume.
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Question 36 of 40
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Which finding is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism? A Cold intolerance and bradycardia B Weight gain with lethargy C Heat intolerance and tachycardia D Severe constipation only
Correct Answer: Option C — Heat intolerance and tachycardia Detailed Academic Explanation: Hyperthyroidism increases metabolic activity and sympathetic effects, commonly causing heat intolerance, weight loss, tremor, and tachycardia.
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Question 37 of 40
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Which action is most appropriate when a patient refuses a prescribed treatment? A Force the treatment B Explore the reason, provide information, and respect informed choice C Threaten the patient D Ignore the refusal
Correct Answer: Option B — Explore the reason, provide information, and respect informed choice Detailed Academic Explanation: Competent patients have the right to make informed decisions. The nurse should assess understanding, explain consequences, and communicate concerns to the appropriate team.
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Question 38 of 40
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Which finding is most concerning in a patient receiving insulin? A Mild hunger before meals B Sweating and altered consciousness C Stable blood glucose D Normal appetite
Correct Answer: Option B — Sweating and altered consciousness Detailed Academic Explanation: Sweating and altered consciousness can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which requires prompt recognition and treatment.
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Question 39 of 40
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Which position is generally preferred for a patient after a lumbar puncture? A Continuous Trendelenburg position B Immediate vigorous ambulation C Prolonged standing D As directed by current institutional protocol, with monitoring for complications
Correct Answer: Option D — As directed by current institutional protocol, with monitoring for complications Detailed Academic Explanation: Post-lumbar-puncture care varies by protocol; monitoring for headache, neurological changes, and other complications is essential. Routine prolonged flat bed rest is not universally required.
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Question 40 of 40
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Which finding is most suggestive of deep-vein thrombosis? A Unilateral leg swelling and tenderness B Bilateral equal pulses only C Generalized itching D Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: Option B — Bilateral equal pulses only Detailed Academic Explanation: DVT may present with unilateral swelling, warmth, tenderness, and sometimes redness. Suspected DVT requires prompt clinical evaluation.
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